So there’s
— CEO and CTO of that Good Intentions Paving Company [GIPC] — supposedly “Defending Sex in Missouri” while just paving the way to any number of seriously problematic consequences. While he is quite justified in supporting the concluding objective in the following — good intentions writ large — I rather doubt he has a flaming clue as to what is THE “scientifically accurate definition of biological sex”:Without a scientifically accurate definition of biological sex codified into law, it is impossible to enforce the sex-based rights of women and girls that have been previously secured through intense and morally correct human rights activism.
For instance, he boldly asserts:
This coding of individual traits as male or female is possible precisely because the state of being male or female is independent of these traits and is defined by the type of gamete (sperm or ova) an individual can produce or is expected to produce.
And both the Missouri Bill (HB2309) and the Heritage Foundation’s “Defining Sex Act” he refers to do pretty much the same, respectively:
213.014. 1. The provisions of this section shall be known and may be cited as the "Defining SEX Act". The following terms shall mean: …
(3) “Female", an individual who has, had, will have, or would have [had], but for a 7 developmental or genetic anomaly or historical accident, the reproductive system that at some point produces, transports, and utilizes eggs for fertilization;
Be it enacted that for the purposes of the laws, administrative rules, and guidelines of the state/commonwealth of __________:
A female is defined as an individual who has, had, will have—or would have, but for a developmental or genetic anomaly or historical accident—the reproductive system that at some point produces, transports, and utilizes eggs for fertilization.
But virtually NO reputable biological journal, encyclopedia, or dictionary says ANYTHING of the sort. For examples, see here, and here. From the Glossary of the first:
The salient difference, the sticky wicket, the elephant in the living room that the three of them — and too many other so-called biologists and philosophers (e.g.,
, , Alex Byrne ) — are desperately trying to sweep under the carpet is that the standard biological definitions STIPULATE that to have a sex is to have FUNCTIONAL gonads of either of two types, those with neither being, ipso facto, sexless. There is absolutely NOTHING at all in any of those biological definitions that say ANYTHING at all about “can produce or is expected to produce” either type of gamete, or “who has, had, will have, or would have [had]” functional gonads.Moot of course as to the roots of that dichotomy, though one might reasonably argue that the Heritage Foundation at least takes their marching orders from Genesis 1:27
So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
Who’s going to gainsay Jehovah Himself? 🙄 Though I don’t see anything that even suggests that “He” said anything at all about what it takes to qualify as members of the sex categories — particularly in all of the other species — or that the states were “immutable”, clearly not the case for the many species which actually change sex.
But many other people take being male and female as an “essential and immutable” part of their identity, and often get quite “offended” at any suggestion to the contrary. Which is largely what various transactivists are rather desperately trying to claim, though with much less in the way of any objective justifications. So while there is some “reason” undergirding the efforts of Wright and Company to turn the tide of the latter cohort, bastardizing the biological definitions for the sexes in furtherance of that objective is something in the way of a fool’s bargain, a case of shooting oneself in the feet and snatching defeat from the jaws of victory.
I don't agree with your stance but upvotes for persistence I guess..!
The definition is the way it is because it runs across all sexual species, some of which do all sorts of interesting things including arbitrariness in sex development (eg temperature). But it's not necessary for sex across all species to be a natural kind with a single definition, it is remarkable that evolution is so consistent in maintaining the similarities through distinct lines of development.
Humans are easy and don't need the looser time-bound definition that you prefer, they are men or women or intersex throughout their lives. Unless you are not the same Steersman as you were in the womb?
Anyway just throwing that out there, no time to discuss it now.
The definitions that you put forth is certainly accurate when being applied across across anisogamous species (including humans). You seem to greatly favor the first, and it does account for the handful of species that can undergo a differentiation into M or F after being born due to environmental factors. And that definition states "phenotype that produces" which can be interpreted to mean is currently capable of producing (which in that definition is probably the intention) or can be interpreted as will at some point be capable of.
I don't see the second reference providing a definition quite as narrow as the first, their definition reads: "in a system with two markedly different gamete sizes, we define females to be the sex that produces the larger gametes and vice-versa for males". Again this definition uses the term produces which could be taken in a literal sense to mean present tense, or could be taken (as I learned as a Zoology major in the 1970s) to mean will be able to, does, or did produce. We also learned that there were anatomical differences for the sexes of an anisogamous species that would correspond to being able to produce the associated gamete, and allow the physical aspects of reproduction to occur during the times of the organisms life it was reproductively active. Thus sex determination (or phenotype) of an individual was not limited (with rare exceptions) to the life stage of a individual, and would be predictive of the physical development of the individual.
Since humans are mammals, we are not one of those rare exceptions in that based on our sex observed at birth (or these days often observed in utero), we are born with the appropriate anatomy and physiological function to develop into reproductive maturity and produce the gametes associated with out sex. There are to be sure a very very small number of individuals that have disorders that will produce anomolies that will preclude them from being able to reproduce. And a small subset of these that will have ambiguity between gonads and other aspects of reproductive and genitalia.
I question legislatures spending time on this type of legislation, but I guess we may have come to this point. Writing legislation based on terminology such as anisogamous and phenotypes may have resonance with for someone focused on definitions in use by evolutionary biologists with a specialty in evolution of gametes, or someone focused on philosophical discussions that center on semantics. However, legislation meant to govern humans based on human characteristics is going to require language understandable by the general public in terms that they can relate to. So the language in this legislation does give an accurate description of the phenotype in humans (or any mammal) that produces large gametes. So I guess they could have included first the definition you like, but to make it useable, they would have had to include the language they did.
They did effectively account for the disorders I mention. I don't see any weaknesses that gender ideologs could leverage. And they are talking strictly about gender.
What are the real problems here? Or is it just that Wright endorsed this, and you seem to have a major bone to pick with him?